So, I must admit I'm struggling with the legitimacy of this. So:
- US Government bans trade with non-US country
- Non-US company trades with non-US country
- US arrests non-US citizen of non-US company
Can someone explain how this is even remotely legitimate? Surely US trade sanctions apply to US companies / bodies? If the UK.gov want companies to stop trading with said non-US country, shouldn't the UK set its own sanctions for its own companies, and so on and so forth? Otherwise any country with enough allies could just impose trade sanctions. What if China imposed trade sanctions on the USA then arrested any and all company directors who's companies traded with the USA, regardless of where those companies were based?