The article makes the point that this peering problem is nothing to do with the IPv6 protocol, so why doesn't this happen with IPv4, in that case?
Perhaps because the sources, destinations, and volumes of IPv6 traffic differ from IPv4 traffic? An otherwise nondescript IPv4 ISP might, through circumstance, have a significant sink for IPv6 traffic in its customer base. While it will not be able to use its IPv4 presence to broker peering deals, it may be able to argue that the imbalance in IPv6 traffic justifies that it either charges other ISPs for IPv6 connectivity, or comes to a peering agreement which it would not otherwise be able to negotiate on its IPv4 traffic statistics alone.
Biting the hand that feeds IT
