I must be missing something
Article cites recent examples of politically motivated action by the FBI (reopening Clinton case, ex) then goes on to state that the FBI does not let politics interfere with its investigations.
as we all "know" that Flynn was being wiretapped so he could be investigated about collusion allegations later, what was the initial case and judge sign-off on installing the wiretaps in the first place?
Bottom line is, we have a known history of the FBI playing serious politics, recently and even farther back, (think some of the politically motivated "communist" witch hunts) but the article is going to claim that, well, this time, its totally cannot be political? Its like the only difference is the Party of the target has changed to change the story.
I think I hear some more Bay Area Bubble again.