The part that I don't understand...
The ad had to state that the decision has effect through all of the EU. Does that mean that decisions of the German courts that Samsung DID infringe are subservient to British ones that say they didn't? I mean, in the U.S., an individual state's courts -- even a state's supreme court -- can only pass decisions that are binding in THAT state. It takes a Federal court to make rulings that hold across all of the states.
Does the EU actually allow one state to override the decisions of another state's courts across the entire union?
Maybe I'm just misunderstanding something here, but that just seems f*cked up.