I don't get it ...
Doesn't US Tort Law require the plaintiff to show material harm was caused by the actions of the opposing party?
Oracle is entirely absent from the mobile device market. Rumor has it that they tried to build something, and failed miserably at it. So it's not like Google's copying of 9 lines of Java code somehow destroyed Oracle's mobile device market share and associated revenue, because there is none to begin with.
What is the basis for Oracle's claim to USD $2 Billion (or whatever it is) in damages from Google?
It looks like Larry wants to retroactively rewrite US Copyright Law by claiming that API's are copyrightable. Even if the Appeals Court agrees with this theory (which is very doubtful), how can it apply retroactively?