confusing fiscal propriety here...
from the article:
"ICANN cannot, as a matter of law, be liable under the antitrust laws with respect to the conduct alleged in the Complaint because ICANN does not engage in 'trade or commerce'," ICANN said.
"[ICANN] does not sell Internet domain names, it does not register Internet domain names, and it certainly is not an Internet pornographer. ICANN does not make or sell anything," the motion adds.
then it states:
"The organisation now receives $2 from ICM for every .xxx domain name registered, the highest fee it commands from any registry."
so tell me, if it is not engaging in trade or commerce (and therefore cannot be considered to have a monopoly under antitrust regulations), why is it receiving fees for each domain that is registered? Would it be possible for me to register and sell domains without having to pay ICANN for the privilege? Sounds pretty monopolising to me... so I must be missing something.


